I want to put to the Test: some of the theories, rules and arguments on how we should understand and read the Bible.
In this post I want to put to the Test if "Matthew is only for the Jews UNTIL they REJECTED Christ' and if this means that the Gathering from Matt 24:31 is only for the Jews.
When we apply some rule I think it should be applied very consistent, without considering the consequences!!! Do you agree?
So if you apply a rule or argument consequently and it gives UNEASY results then you should ACCEPT them, for the BIBLE should be LEADING. Or the rule or argument is wrong and then you should NOT apply it anymore!
So lets put GATHERING and the CHURCH in Matthew to the TEST.
The Church is already mentioned in Matthew 16 and 18.
Because of the rule 'for Jews until rejection' both words are considered to be about/for the Jews only, at the time when Jesus said this.
The rule also explains: after the Jews rejected Jesus then the Gentiles come into the picture.
Based on this second part of the rule, it is said that after the rejection, the Gentiles became part of the Church. Well this is true, because even Paul explains this in Romans in many details. Where he says that first the Gospel was for the Jews but the Gentiles get part into the promises for the Jews.
Well now comes the inconsistency!!
For this second part is NOT applied to the GATHERING.....
So after the rejection the Gentiles become part
of the 'JEWISH' CHURCH
but NOT of the 'JEWISH' GATHERING.
And the argumentation which then follows is like:
- if the gentiles are part of the Gathering
- then this is the rapture
(true consequence based on comparing other literal verses) - then the rapture is after the tribulation
(true consequence) - then Gods wrath is NOT the tribulation
(true consequence) - but the tribulation is the worst thing ever
(wrong interpretation of Matt 24) - so the tribulation has to be Gods wrath
(reasoning with NO literal bibleverses) - the rapture is BEFORE Gods wrath, so it has to be before the tribulation
(true argument, based on wrong interpretation) - so the Gentiles are not part of the Gathering
(wrong conclusion) - and this is proven by Revelation where the church is not mentioned from ch. 4
(another theory and indirect argument)
(trying to find anything in the bible to PROOF the CONCLUSION)
THIS IS CIRCULAIR REASONING and molding the BIBLE until it fits...... Applying only those rules when it helps the theory.
I hope SOME of you WILL see how BAD this is!!
NB.
Let me also remind you that mostly it is said: the Church did not exist during the Gospels, so it cannot be about the church.....
But because the Church is literally mentioned in Matthew we cannot hold to that rule anymore....